Re: Wealth Distribution & Kinetic Theory
On Apr 24, 2007, at 11:31 AM, Jerry Monaco wrote:
Why should wealth distribution (in any society) follow this thermodynamic model? Is it simply an “artifact” of how we have constructed society? Surely it is not an “intended” artifact, but simply a mathematical side effect. But why should the model work in the first place for any given society? Is this a stupid question, or an epistemological mistake on my part to even ask the question.
I’m too lazy and short of time to read the paper, but there’s a
pretty significant variation in the distribution of wealth (and does
this really mean wealth, or is it a sloppy synonym for income?)
across societies, and within individual societies over time. How do
the laws of physics explain those?
Doug